Sexuality in Macbeth
Is Shakespeare blatantly sexist when he writes Lady Macbeth "unsexing" herself, or is there a chance that he is somehow satirizing gender stereotypes? In 1.5, lines 45-61, Lady Macbeth calls upon spirits to give replace her female characteristics with those of a man in order to gain the ruthlessness and strength to plot the king's murder. I find it strange that sexuality is not only relevant to the murder but also the first preparation that Lady Macbeth thinks of. She was immediately eager to kill Duncan, so why would she second guess herself? Macbeth was much more reluctant to follow through and he is a man, so men do not necessarily have more conviction than women in this play. This led me to wonder whether Shakespeare is actually saying that women don't have the stomach to plot a murder. It is possible that Lady Macbeth has internalized sexism and convinced herself that she is incapable of something when in reality she is the most determined to pursue it. Shakespeare has been known to introduce proto-feminist ideas in other plays such as Othello through the character Emilia, so I think it's worth considering whether the text is more progressive than it seems.
Most of the play by does not seem to discuss sexuality. There are also very few female characters. The only others are the Witches, and their sexuality is discussed as well. Banquo notes that they have beards and has trouble considering them women, saying they "look not like th' inhabitants o' th' earth"(1.3,42). Why would Shakespeare choose to only include women who look like men or want to be men?
Most of the play by does not seem to discuss sexuality. There are also very few female characters. The only others are the Witches, and their sexuality is discussed as well. Banquo notes that they have beards and has trouble considering them women, saying they "look not like th' inhabitants o' th' earth"(1.3,42). Why would Shakespeare choose to only include women who look like men or want to be men?
I think that it's important that you highlighted the fact that Lady Macbeth felt that she need to become more manly in order to get the job done, where in all actuality Macbeth was the one behaving cowardly. I believe that it is because of statements like "Man up" that leads to Lady Macbeth to make the request that she did.
ReplyDeleteA possibility as to the reason Shakespeare might have included the idea of a masculine woman. is to suggest that there is no room for relaxation in this book. Generally, the home life is in direct contrast from the battlefield, as the wife provides comfort to the husband. However, by making the woman have these traits that perhaps in her time were more masculine in perception, the home becomes the battlefield, and thus there are no quarters to rest for Macbeth to catch his breath and fully consider his actions?
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